NCLEX Basic Care and Comfort Practice Test

Q: What does Basic Care and Comfort cover on the NCLEX?

It focuses on routine patient care needs like hygiene, mobility, rest, nutrition, elimination, and comfort measures.

Q: Are these questions more about technique or priorities?

Mostly priorities. Many items test what to do first, what is safest, and what prevents complications.

Q: What is the best way to approach mobility and transfer questions?

Choose the option that reduces fall risk, uses correct support equipment, and matches the patient’s current ability level.

Q: Do questions in this category include skin care and pressure injury prevention?

Yes. Positioning, turning schedules, and skin checks often appear because they connect directly to comfort and safety.

Q: How do I handle nutrition and hydration questions in this category?

Focus on safe feeding, aspiration risk cues, adequate fluid intake, and practical steps that support intake without rushing.

Q: What should I do when two answers both sound kind and helpful?

Pick the one that addresses the most urgent safety need and prevents harm first, even if the other choice also sounds supportive.

Q: How should I use this practice test if my exam is soon?

Take it once to find your weak subtopics, review the basics behind those misses, then retake a short set to confirm improvement.

Q: Does this quiz show explanations after each question, or only at the end?

You’ll see feedback as you go, so you can learn the reasoning right away instead of waiting until the final score screen.

Q: If I close the page mid-quiz, will it save my place, or do I need to restart?

Plan on restarting. This quiz page is meant to be completed in one sitting, and leaving mid-way can reset your progress.

Q: After I finish, do I get a results summary that helps me see what I missed and what to practice next?

Yes. You get a score-style wrap-up at the end that makes it easy to spot weak areas and decide what to drill next.

Question 1

A nurse is taking care of an elderly patient with a significant essential tremor that includes an intentional tremor. Which of these assistive devices would be most beneficial to this patient for his activities of daily living?

Accepted Answer

a button hook. A patient suffering with any type of tremor will likely have difficulty performing activities of daily living that involve fine motor skills. Out of the listed choices, a button hook is the most beneficial assistive device for this type of impairment. A voice amplifier may be helpful for a patient with speech difficulties and/or vocal cord injuries. A leg lifter helps a patient with limited hip mobility and/or severe arthritis move from lying to seated and seated to standing positions. A dressing stick is a helpful device for patients who cannot bend at the hip and for patients with balance/coordination problems.

Question 2

An emergency room nurse is giving discharge instructions to a 15-year-old male who has suffered an orthopedic injury during a soccer game. He has been instructed to use crutches and limit weight bearing until further evaluation by a specialist. When instructing this patient, which of these is the correct way to describe the proper use of crutches?

Accepted Answer

Keeping the arms slightly bent, place the crutches about one foot in front of you, shifting your body weight to the hand grips as you swing your uninjured leg to, or just in front of, the crutches. The proper use of crutches involves ambulating with a three-point stance. To do this correctly, the patient must keep the arms slightly bent, place the crutches about one foot ahead, then transfer the body weight onto the hand grips (never the armpit pads) while swinging the uninjured leg to, or just in front of, the crutches.

Question 3

A middle-aged female with Meniere’s Disease is hospitalized for another condition. During her stay, she has a severe attack of Meniere’s. Which of these assistive devices would be least helpful to implement into your care plan?

Accepted Answer

a utensil cuff. Because Meniere’s Disease is a condition that causes dizziness, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), and hearing loss, the shower chair, walker, and personal sound amplifier would all be helpful devices to allow this patient maximum independence during her hospitalization. A utensil cuff is helpful for someone who has weakness or difficulty holding utensils due to contracture/deformity. Therefore, it would not be helpful in this patient’s case.

Question 4

You are caring for a patient who has suffered a severe traumatic injury. He is currently catheterized. During your shift, you note that the patient has only produced 150 cc of urine. You check his total output in the past 24 hours and it is 350 cc. By definition, this patient has which of these diagnoses?

Accepted Answer

oliguria. Total urine output of less than 400 cc in a 24-hour period is, by definition, oliguria. Anuria refers to a total urine output of less than 50 cc in a 24-hour period. Dysuria refers to painful urination and is not related to urine quantity. Polyuria is a total urine output of more than 2.5 L in a 24-hour period.

Question 5

A 2-year-old presents to the urgent care clinic for cerumen impaction. The nurse is instructed to perform an ear irrigation. Which interventions should the nurse take?
A. Position the child with affected ear facing upward.
B. Cleanse the external ear and external canal to clear any visible debris.
C. Use a cotton-tip applicator to clean the internal canal as much as possible prior to the irrigation.
D. Pull the tragus downward and backward, insert syringe, and direct the solution toward the top of the ear.
E. Pull the pinna downward and backward, and insert the syringe to direct the flow of solution toward the top of the ear.

Accepted Answer

A, B, and E. To properly perform an ear irrigation on a child less than 3 years of age, the nurse should position the child in a comfortable position with affected ear upward, any visible debris should be removed from the external ear canal and external ear, and the pinna should be pulled gently downward and backward to straighten the ear canal prior to inserting the syringe and inserting the fluid. Cotton-tip applicators should not be inserted into the internal ear or ear canal. The tragus is not manipulated or positioned during an ear irrigation.

Question 6

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for a severe flare-up of inflammatory bowel disease. The physician has ordered an enema containing betamethasone. The nurse knows that the commonly used type of enema to give a medication is which of these?

Accepted Answer

retention enema. A retention enema is typically the best form of enema to deliver medication directly to the mucosal surface of the bowel. Once given, the solution is retained by the patient for an hour or more. This type of enema can also be used to lubricate the rectum and soften stool. A carminative enema is usually given to relieve flatus and stimulate peristalsis to make it easier to defecate. A cleansing enema removes feces and may be helpful in the treatment of constipation as well as the removal of fecal matter prior to screening/diagnostic examinations such as colonoscopies, etc. A return-flow enema has similar applications as a carminative enema and may be used in the treatment of flatulence and/or constipation.

Question 7

A nurse is caring for a patient who needs an enema. Which of these is the best position in which to place the patient followed by the correct description of the position?

Accepted Answer

Sim’s position: patient in a prone/lateral position on his or her side with the upper leg flexed and drawn in toward the chest and the upper arm flexed at the elbow. The best position in which to place a patient prior to an enema is in Sim’s position. The patient lies on either side in the prone or lateral position with the upper leg flexed and drawn in toward the chest and the upper arm flexed at the elbow. The lateral position is followed by the correct description, but not the preferred positioning prior to an enema. Fowler’s position is the patient lying supine with the head of the bed elevated to various degrees. Fowler’s is best for those with cardiac or breathing problems and/or a nasogastric tube. The description given with Fowler’s is that of Trendelenberg, which may be useful in hypotensive patients. Right prone is not a patient position.

Question 8

A nurse is planning care for an immobile, bedridden patient. Which of the following is not a complication of immobility?

Accepted Answer

diarrhea. Immobility can lead to many life-threatening physiological and psychological complications that must be addressed in the nursing care plan. Hypercalcemia can result from inactivity and subsequent breakdown of skeletal bone. Skin integrity can be affected and decubiti can form if not addressed with positioning and frequent repositioning. Contractures are the result of inactivity and must be addressed with passive/active range of motion exercises. Diarrhea is not a common complication of immobility. To the contrary, immobile patients often struggle with constipation due to being inactive.

Question 9

Which of these complications of immobility is correctly paired with the proper nursing intervention?

Accepted Answer

atelectasis: deep breathing exercises and incentive spirometry. Immobile and/or bedridden patients are at risk for numerous complications that require proper nursing interventions. As a result of inactivity, atelectasis may develop, but it can be prevented with deep breathing exercises and incentive spirometry. Bone demineralization can be prevented with weight-bearing exercise or the use of a tilt table. Passive range of motion exercises will prevent contractures and promote joint mobility. Constipation can be addressed with proper fluid intake and medications if/when necessary. Frequent repositioning every 2 hours will prevent skin breakdown and promote patient comfort. Lastly, depression can be managed by implementing activities that encourage patient independence and limit social isolation.

Question 10

A nurse is taking care of a 20-year-old male who is post-op for a surgical repair of a right tibia and fibula fracture following a motor vehicle accident. The patient has an external fixation device. Which of these is true concerning the nursing care of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Frequent repositioning will be necessary to ensure his comfort and prevent skin breakdown. The purpose of most external fixation devices is to maintain proper positioning and alignment of the fractured/repaired bone in addition to reducing pain and muscle spasms in the affected extremity. Because this patient has a lower extremity fixation device, he will be effectively immobile. Therefore, frequent repositioning will be necessary for his comfort and to maintain his skin integrity. Nursing assessments of his circulatory and neurological systems should be normal and without any deficit or abnormalities. Redness, warmth, edema, and purulent drainage at the pin insertion sites is abnormal and could be signs of infection.

Question 11

A client is discussing starting acupuncture to help with smoking cessation. The nurse educates the client that acupuncture is contraindicated with which conditions:
A. pacemaker placement
B. seizure disorder
C. arrhythmias
D. hypertension
E. coumadin (Warfarin) therapy

Accepted Answer

A, B, and E. Acupuncture has been shown to be successful in helping clients reduce or cease smoking. It is a nonpharmacological alternative therapy used for many other medical conditions, as well. Common contraindications to acupuncture include pacemaker placement, seizure disorder, anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy, bleeding disorders, drug or alcohol intoxication, infections skin disorders and/or diseases, and sometimes pregnancy. Hypertension and arrhythmias are not contraindications to acupuncture.

Question 12

A nurse is beginning a new position working in a pain management clinic. On her first day, her precepting nurse asks her what the four phases of pain are, in sequential order. Place the four phases in the correct order.
A. modulation
B. perception
C. transmission
D. transduction

Accepted Answer

D, C, A, B. Pain is a highly complex phenomenon that is experienced and described differently by each person. The correct sequential order of the four phases of pain are transduction (painful stimuli are changed to nerve impulses by the nervous system), transmission (the impulses travel from the site of origin to the brain), modulation (the body’s activation to the needed inhibitory responses to pain), and perception (the brain recognizes, defines, and responds to pain).

Note: We found a few sources that reversed the above order of modulation and perception, listing perception before modulation. However, our most authoritative and reliable sources list the order as we have it listed above.

Question 13

A nurse is evaluating a young adult patient who has presented to the emergency department with the chief complaint of abdominal pain. If the nurse is using the PQRST method of pain assessment, which of the following questions should be asked for the “S” portion of the assessment?

Accepted Answer

“How severe is your pain on a scale of 1 to 10, where 1 is minimal pain and 10 is the most intense pain?” and “Are you experiencing any other symptoms in addition to your pain?”. The “S” portion of the PQRST method of pain assessment should include questions related to the patient’s severity of pain (via a pain scale) and associated symptoms occurring with the pain. Questions about how the pain began and what relieves the pain would be in the “P” or precipitating factors. Those relating to the nature of the pain (sharp, stabbing, etc.) would be in the “Q” section or quality of the pain. While questions about the patient’s medical history and previous/similar symptoms are helpful, they are not part of the PQRST method.

Question 14

A hospice nurse has been caring for a patient with terminal cancer for the past 2 weeks. The nurse has implemented numerous interventions during this time with the patient, primary caregiver, and family. As the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the care plan, which of these should be the highest priority when measuring the actual outcomes with the expected patient-stated goals?

Accepted Answer

pain and symptom control. The nurse administering palliative, end-of-life care does so as part of a broad, interdisciplinary team. The care the nurse gives will include both the patient, other caregivers, and family. It will include interventions to meet physical, emotional, psychosocial, and spiritual needs as well as counseling and education for caregivers and the patient’s family. Although all of the answer choices will need to be addressed in the care plan and evaluated for effectiveness, the highest priority should be on keeping the patient pain and symptom-free at the end of life.

Question 15

Which of these typically does not factor into a patient’s perception of and response to pain?

Accepted Answer

gender. Patients can vary widely as to their perceptions and response to pain. There are many factors that influence this, but gender is not one of them. In addition to those listed are: ethnic and cultural factors and values; level of development and cognitive functioning; economic factors; the patient’s personal definition and meaning of pain; genetic factors; and their levels of fear and anxiety.

Question 16

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a 45-year-old male who has been hospitalized for chronic pancreatitis. Which of these statements should be a critical part of the dietary counseling for this patient?

Accepted Answer

avoid alcohol entirely. Dietary counseling will be different for each patient depending on the underlying condition that is being treated and any other health conditions that the patient may have. In the case of chronic pancreatitis, cessation of alcohol consumption is critical as it may trigger an acute flare and be the underlying cause of the patient’s chronic pancreatitis. Since proper pancreatic function is critical in digestion, absorption of nutrients, and glycemic control, patients should avoid high fat and cholesterol foods and excessive sugar (including fruit juices) and take a daily multivitamin and calcium supplement.

Question 17

The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment for a patient who is 134 kg and 1.93 meters in height. Which of these would be a correct statement about this patient’s nutritional status?

Accepted Answer

This patient is obese and in need of weight reduction. To calculate a patient’s BMI, you need to divide their body weight by their height in meters squared. In this example, the patient has a BMI of 36 which is obese. This patient would need to be placed on a plan to reduce weight.

Question 18

The nurse is delivering dinner trays to patients under the care of a colleague due to being short-staffed on her medical-surgical floor. She comes across a tray that is not assigned to a patient, but is ordered as a mechanical soft diet. There are four patients who still do not have dinner trays. Which of these patients would likely need this type of diet?

Accepted Answer

a patient who is postoperative for a total thyroidectomy. Patients who are ordered a mechanical soft diet usually have poor dentition, swallowing disorders, intestinal strictures, and/or are postoperative for face/neck surgery. A full liquid diet is indicated for gastritis. A clear liquid diet is indicated prior to a colonoscopy. And a patient in renal failure on dialysis may require a low sodium, phosphorous, and protein diet.

Question 19

The nurse is working in a pediatrics office and is seeing a 3-yr-old female for a well child visit. During the history, the nurse asks how much the child sleeps at night and during daytime naps. Which of these would be an acceptable answer, given the child’s age and developmental stage?

Accepted Answer

10 to 13 hours a day. Preschool-aged children ages 3 to 5 should get 10 to 13 hours of sleep every day. Neonates to age 3 months should get 14 to 17 hours of sleep. School-aged children ages 6 to 12 years should get 9 to 11 hours daily, and adolescents ages 13 to 17 should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep daily.

Question 20

A nurse is counseling a patient with a chief complaint of excessive daytime fatigue. The treating practitioner has ordered that the patient keep a daily sleep log for a period of 2 weeks. The nurse is educating the patient on what elements are important to include in the log. Which of these is typically not necessary to record?

Accepted Answer

the timing and amount of food consumed throughout the day. When keeping a sleep log, it is not necessary to record the timing and amount of food consumed throughout the day. Although, in general, heavy meals should be avoided prior to sleeping. In addition to the the choices listed, one should also include the timing of cigarettes and alcohol prior to bedtime; the exact symptoms and severity of daytime sleepiness; a list of daily stressors; and the exact bedtime, time to fall asleep, duration of sleep, and the timing and duration of awake periods during the night.

NCLEX Basic Care and Comfort Practice Test

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What This Basic Care and Comfort Practice Test Offers

Molly W.

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Common NCLEX Basic Care and Comfort Questions Answered

What does Basic Care and Comfort cover on the NCLEX?

Are these questions more about technique or priorities?

What is the best way to approach mobility and transfer questions?

Do questions in this category include skin care and pressure injury prevention?

How do I handle nutrition and hydration questions in this category?

What should I do when two answers both sound kind and helpful?

How should I use this practice test if my exam is soon?

Does this quiz show explanations after each question, or only at the end?

If I close the page mid-quiz, will it save my place, or do I need to restart?

After I finish, do I get a results summary that helps me see what I missed and what to practice next?

Is there a clear path on the page to jump into other NCLEX categories once I complete this set?

NCLEX Basic Care and Comfort Practice Test

Test Details

What This Basic Care and Comfort Practice Test Offers

Molly W.

Wanna Try Unlimited?

Pass the exam — and get licensed.

Start a Free 3-Day Trial

Free for 3 days

Pass Guarantee—pass or your money back

1,000+ questions, every NCLEX Client Needs category

Reviewed by a nurse educator

100,000+ students prepped with AHC

— Yasmin, U.S.

More NCLEX Practice Tests

Common NCLEX Basic Care and Comfort Questions Answered

What does Basic Care and Comfort cover on the NCLEX?

Are these questions more about technique or priorities?

What is the best way to approach mobility and transfer questions?

Do questions in this category include skin care and pressure injury prevention?

How do I handle nutrition and hydration questions in this category?

What should I do when two answers both sound kind and helpful?

How should I use this practice test if my exam is soon?

Does this quiz show explanations after each question, or only at the end?

If I close the page mid-quiz, will it save my place, or do I need to restart?

After I finish, do I get a results summary that helps me see what I missed and what to practice next?

Is there a clear path on the page to jump into other NCLEX categories once I complete this set?

Ready to pass for real?