NCLEX Health Promotion and Maintenance Practice Test

Q: How many questions are in this quiz?

This practice set includes 20 questions, making it perfect for a quick study session.

Q: Is there a time limit?

No. You can take it at your own pace without a countdown timer.

Q: Do I get feedback while I answer, or only after I finish?

You get feedback during the quiz, which helps you correct mistakes right away.

Q: Do I need to enter an email to see my results?

Yes. The results step asks for an email before showing the full results view.

Q: What should I do if the quiz stalls or does not load properly?

Refresh the page, then use the reload option to restart if needed

Q: What kinds of topics fall under Health Promotion and Maintenance on the NCLEX?

Think prevention and normal growth across the lifespan: screenings, vaccines, prenatal and postpartum care, developmental milestones, patient teaching, and early risk reduction.

Q: How do I choose the best patient teaching point when several are true?

Pick the one that prevents the most harm first, matches the patient’s current situation, and is something the patient can actually do today.

Q: Do these questions focus more on kids and pregnancy, or adults too?

All ages. You will see child development and prenatal topics, but also adult prevention like screenings, lifestyle teaching, and managing long-term health risks.

Q: What should I prioritize in prenatal care style questions?

Safety red flags, teaching that prevents complications, and actions that support a healthy pregnancy, like warning signs to report and basic lifestyle guidance.

Q: How do I approach screening questions if I don’t remember exact ages?

Use logic: earlier screening for higher risk, routine screening for average risk, and focus on the test that fits the symptom or risk factor described

Question 1

A nurse is working in a pregnancy crisis center. A 15-year-old girl comes into the center and requests a pregnancy test. Her test results are positive. To tell her when her baby is due, the nurse will need to know which of these things?

Accepted Answer

the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP). The estimated delivery date can be determined by using Naegele’s Rule. It is figured by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of a woman’s last menstrual period (LMP). It is based on a 28-day menstrual cycle and a 40-week gestation, which truly makes it an estimate.

Question 2

A 31-year-old woman presents to the clinic for pregnancy counseling. The nurse takes her medical history and learns that she is currently under orthopedic care for a torn labrum in her right hip. She has a history of gastric ulcers. Her medications include a multivitamin, vitamin C, ibuprofen, and Cytotec prescribed by her orthopedist. Which of these topics would be the nurse’s highest priority in communication with this patient?

Accepted Answer

Cytotec is contraindicated in pregnancy and could result in miscarriage. Discussing pregnancy contraindications should be the nurse’s highest priority with this patient. In her case, Cytotec is a category X medication. Although she is taking it to prevent further gastric ulcer during her NSAID therapy, she should not remain on this medication and attempt to become pregnant. Ibuprofen is not considered a safe medication during pregnancy, but it is not contraindicated. A torn labrum is not a contraindication to pregnancy, and there is relatively low risk of a flare of her gastric ulcers if she becomes pregnant.

Question 3

Which of these statements regarding RhoGAM injections is correct?

Accepted Answer

It is given at 28 weeks and at the baby’s birth to a mother who is Rh negative if the father is Rh positive. A RhoGAM injection is given to a mother who is Rh negative if the father is Rh positive or if the Rh status of the father is unknown. It is given at 28 weeks gestation and again at the baby’s birth. It protects the infant from immune-mediated complications such as hydrops fetalis by preventing an Rh negative mother from making antibodies to a (potentially) Rh positive baby.

Question 4

A 26-year-old primigravida mother presents for her prenatal care visit at 24 weeks. She states that she has been feeling well. The nurse notes that the mother has gained 30 pounds since her first prenatal visit at 8 weeks, at which she had a normal weight. The nurse counsels the mother on which of these possible complications related to excess weight gain during pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. Increased risk for stress fractures
B. Increased risk for developing hypertension
C. Increased risk for preeclampsia
D. Increased risk for developing Type II Diabetes
E. Increased risk for premature birth

Accepted Answer

B, C, and D. Ideal weight gain for a pregnancy is between 22 and 27 pounds. Gaining substantially more weight increases the risk of preeclampsia during pregnancy. Also, if the excess pregnancy weight is not lost after the infant’s birth, a woman has a higher risk of developing both hypertension and Type II Diabetes. Stress fractures are not a result of excess weight gain during pregnancy. Risk for premature birth increases with women who are underweight or overweight before pregnancy.

Question 5

A nurse working in an obstetrics practice returns from her lunch break and finds four new phone messages for which she must return calls. Out of these four, which one is the highest acuity?

Accepted Answer

a 32-year-old in her 36th week of pregnancy who has had a continuous, worsening headache for the past 48 hours. Nurses must be familiar with both the norms of pregnancy and the danger signs so that they can educate and counsel concerned patients appropriately. A continuous headache in the last trimester is a warning sign of preeclampsia. It is normal not to feel fetal movement until weeks 17 to 19; sometimes it is first felt as late as week 25. A decrease in fetal movement in the last trimester is a warning sign of something dangerous—not an increase. Weight gain during pregnancy will vary from week to week. The objective to stay within a 22 to 27 pound range for the entire pregnancy is what is important.

Question 6

A newborn infant is having her first neonatal assessment. Her cry is strong, her pulse is 130 bpm, her respiration effort is normal, she has good muscle tone, and her trunk and proximal extremities are pink, but her hands and feet are blue. What would this infant’s APGAR score be?

Accepted Answer

9. The APGAR score is a cumulative score of five assessments done one minute following birth: reflex irritability (grimace/cry), heart rate (pulse), respiration (effort), activity (muscle tone), and appearance (color). A score of 2 is given for each category if the assessment is good; 1 is given if okay; and 0 if it’s poor. The maximum score is 10. This infant scores a 2 in all but the appearance category, in which she would score a 1. Her total APGAR would be 9.

Question 7

A first-time mom brings in her 1-year-old for his well child visit. The nurse asks about his age-appropriate developmental milestones. Which of her answers would be a red flag that there is a developmental delay?

Accepted Answer

He can hold a sippy cup between his hands, but he can’t pick up bits of food or transfer food or his cup from hand to hand yet. An infant to one year old undergoes a tremendous amount of growth and development. A one year old should be able to use a “pincer grasp” picking up smaller objects/food with the thumb and index finger. They should also be able to transfer objects from hand to hand by age 9 months. Children this age may recognize certain words and will respond selectively to spoken words. “Cooing” and other vocalizations are practice for more complex words. Some children at age 1 do not speak any words, while others may be able to say a select few. By age one, an infant should be able to roll from tummy to side/back, and while most can crawl, some go straight to pulling up/standing; most infants do not learn to walk before age 1.

Question 8

Which of these age groups is incorrectly matched with its developmental needs?

Accepted Answer

School-aged children need consistency and to feel secure in their environments. The need for consistency and to feel secure in their environment is the main developmental need of preschool-aged children. School-aged children need gentle nurturing of their budding independence as they enter school. Special attention to physical problems such as vision, hearing, and scoliosis is needed in this group.

Question 9

According to Eric Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which of these is the major conflict that needs to be resolved for adults age 35 to 64?

Accepted Answer

generativity versus stagnation. Adults in this age group are often more focused on their work and families as they look to find a way to leave a lasting legacy in the world. This conflict is known as generativity versus stagnation. Intimacy versus isolation is the major conflict for younger adults age 19 to 34 as they look for a spouse or partner and decide to start a family. Industry versus inferiority is the conflict for ages 5 to 12 or school-aged children. Through accomplishments in school and sports and relationships with peers, this age learns competency. Ego integrity versus despair is Erikson’s final stage of development or conflict to be solved. This occurs in adults over the age of 65 as they look back on their lives and seek a sense of fulfillment and meaning.

Question 10

A nurse is counseling an obese patient on the importance of weight loss. The patient is a 52-year-old African-American male whose body mass index (BMI) is 38. He has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type II diabetes. Which of these is the correct advice for the nurse to give this patient?

Accepted Answer

Slow, incremental weight loss is best as a 10-pound change can improve his overall health. When counseling patients on losing weight, the nurse should encourage slow and incremental changes to diet and exercise routines. Helping patients set reasonable short-term goals is the best way to help them successfully lose weight in the long run and make positive lifestyle changes that will continue through their lifetime. It is important to tell patients that even a modest weight loss of 10 to 20 pounds can improve their overall health as well as chronic health conditions such as type II diabetes and hypertension.

Question 11

A nurse is giving a presentation about the benefits of exercise on overall health. Which of these statements about exercise should the nurse include in her presentation? “Exercise ____.”
Select all that apply.
A. decreases the risk for osteoporosis
B. improves cardiovascular and respiratory function
C. increases metabolic rate and assists in weight management
D. decreases the need for sleep
E. decreases mobility

Accepted Answer

A, B, and C. Exercise improves health in numerous ways. It may help one feel more energetic and alert. Exercise improves long-term health by decreasing risks for heart disease, diabetes, and osteoporosis. While it does not reduce the need for sleep, exercise can improve the quality of sleep for those with sleep-related disorders, like insomnia.

Question 12

A 25-year-old female with a normal menstrual cycle presents for her annual pap smear and breast exam. She has no positive family history of breast cancer. The nurse is counseling the patient on when to do her own breast self-examination (BSE). Which of these should she tell the patient?

Accepted Answer

She should perform her BSE every month on day 5 to 7 of her menstrual cycle. Every woman who is premenopausal should perform a BSE on day 5 to 7 of her menstrual cycle once she reaches puberty. Menopausal women also need to continue to perform monthly BSE, but may choose whatever date they wish since they’re no longer menstruating.

Question 13

A 57-year-old woman presents for evaluation of worsening hot flashes. She states that her menstrual cycles have become more irregular over the past year. She wants to know if she is a candidate for hormone replacement therapy (HRT), but she is concerned about any potential risks associated with taking it. The nurse should communicate this information to the patient:

Accepted Answer

HRT decreases the risk of osteoporosis, but can increase the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD), breast cancer, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and stroke. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is an effective treatment option for many of the symptoms of both perimenopause and menopause such as hot flashes, insomnia, sweating, mood swings, and weight gain. HRT does decrease a woman’s risk of osteoporosis, but can increase her risk of coronary artery disease (CAD), breast cancer, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and stroke.

Question 14

A nurse is working at a high school health fair. She speaks to an 18-year-old male who is about to go to college and live in the dormitory. He states that he gets his annual flu shot, but other than that, he hasn’t had any vaccinations in several years. Which of these vaccinations should the nurse discuss with this patient?

Accepted Answer

meningococcal vaccination. College freshman who plan on living in a dormitory should receive the meningococcal vaccine to prevent meningococcal meningitis. The herpes zoster and pneumococcal vaccinations are recommended for adults over the age of 60 for the prevention of shingles and pneumococcal pneumonia, respectively. The hepatitis B vaccine is typically given as a series of three or four vaccines starting at birth and is finished by six months of age.

Question 15

A nurse is conducting a home visit for a program that monitors at-risk children. Her patient is a 2-year-old female who appears to be in good health. The mother asks when her daughter will need dental care. Which of these is the correct answer to this question?

Accepted Answer

She should begin seeing a dentist now for regular check-ups and cleanings. Research has shown that there is a connection between oral and physical health. Nurses should counsel their patients and their families on the importance of regular dental care beginning at an early age. Dental check-ups and cleanings should be scheduled every 6 months from the age of 2 years on.

Question 16

A nurse enters a contract to work at a community health center. When evaluating clients for hypertension, the nurse understands which of the following clients is at the highest risk?

Accepted Answer

a 67-year-old African American man with hyperthyroidism. It is important for a nurse to recognize risk factors for disease in various populations of clients. Only by doing this can a nurse pursue the most optimal outcomes. The answer to this question is evidence-based. Severe hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of greater than 140/90 mm Hg and is known as the “silent killer.” According to both the American Heart Association and the Mayo Clinic, the incidence of hypertension is higher in African Americans. Other risk factors include age over 60, male sex, hyperlipidemia, an inactive lifestyle, hyper- and hypothyroidism, obesity, and sleep apnea.

Question 17

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a 45-year-old male patient’s annual exam. She needs to alert the provider with any abnormal results. Using her knowledge of the recommended levels for a fasting lipid profile, which of these results should she report?

Accepted Answer

a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 35 mg/dL. Every adult should have a fasting lipid profile at least once every 5 years. The recommended results are: a total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL, a low-density lipoprotein level (LDL) of less than 100 mg/dL, a triglyceride or fatty acid level of less than 150 mg/dL, and a high-density lipoprotein level (HDL) of more than 50 mg/dL for women and 40 mg/dL for men. These values do not change regardless of a patient’s age. Therefore, in this example, an HDL of 35 mg/dL is too low for a male patient and should be reported.

Question 18

A nurse is examining an elderly patient who presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse notes a displaced point of maximal impulse (PMI) and a cardiac thrill. Which examination technique is the nurse using?

Accepted Answer

palpation. Palpating and noting the position of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) can assist in detecting cardiac enlargement. A normal PMI should be felt at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A cardiac thrill is a palpable heart murmur that feels like a vibratory sensation on the skin noted directly over the area where there is turbulent blood flow through the heart.

Question 19

A patient with a 3-day history of worsening fever, productive cough, and fatigue comes to the office for evaluation. The nurse would most likely expect to hear which of the following on her chest examination?

Accepted Answer

dullness with percussion and abnormal breath sounds with auscultation. This patient presents with symptoms consistent with pneumonia. Because it is an exudative process, a nurse will typically hear dullness (soft sounds) with percussion due to the consolidation present in the affected area of the lung as well as abnormal breath sounds with auscultation such as wheezes, rhonchi, crackles, or rales. Hyperresonance (hollow, loud sounds) with percussion is typical if air is present.

Question 20

A 65-year-old Hispanic male has just been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus. He and his daughter are speaking with the nurse in an exam room about his new diagnosis, his medication regimen, and some dietary modifications that he needs to implement. The patient uses a walker to move around, but his daughter says he prefers a cane at home. He speaks in Spanish to his daughter, but she speaks English and Spanish. He seems to follow along well and at the end of the visit, he states that he would like to get better. Given this scenario, which of the following is most likely to be a barrier for this patient’s adherence to the nurse’s instructions?

Accepted Answer

his physical condition. The nurse needs to be aware of any possible barriers to this patient’s following best practices with his new condition, medication routine, and dietary changes. He is with a family member who is translating for him, which means that he has a support system in place and he is getting the information in his native language. He also shows a good attitude about the changes he will need to implement and is motivated to improve his health. The only answer choice that could identify a possible problem would be the fact that he does need physical support moving around safely and this could be a barrier to self-care in terms of getting medication and food.

NCLEX Health Promotion and Maintenance Practice Test

Test Details

What This NCLEX Practice Test Trains You For

Molly W.

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Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

How many questions are in this quiz?

Is there a time limit?

Do I get feedback while I answer, or only after I finish?

Do I need to enter an email to see my results?

What should I do if the quiz stalls or does not load properly?

What kinds of topics fall under Health Promotion and Maintenance on the NCLEX?

How do I choose the best patient teaching point when several are true?

Do these questions focus more on kids and pregnancy, or adults too?

What should I prioritize in prenatal care style questions?

How do I approach screening questions if I don’t remember exact ages?